Test-25


Working on little things with great love is the secret of continuing to study for your competitive and qualifying exams. Because well, planned success is essentially a result of consistency and care.

Whatever you are studying for, if you make discipline your superpower, then even the most mundane thirty minutes of study can be a great step forward.

Stay focused and finish strong especially when your preparation starts feeling tiresome or monotones.

Decide to be your best self by selecting development and accountability over ease and blaming. Allow discipline to slowly turn into your main confidence since with each accomplished task you gain more self, belief and generate the energy that drives you forward.

Look at the goal, have faith in your work, and continue your journey first CO, OP, a role of an alignment technician next month, and attaining the qualification are on the way.

Note- Attend all 200 Questions Compulsory with Right Answer For Contest Continue & chase Competition ⤵️ 



01. Which trend informs climate-aligned budget reforms?
a) Green tagging
b) Performance metrics
c) Oversight
d) Transparency

02. Which issue shapes humanitarian donor coordination?
a) Prioritization
b) Information sharing
c) Accountability
d) Flexibility

03. Which concern shapes public trust in digital platforms?
a) Data protection
b) Transparency
c) Accountability
d) User control

04. Which factor shapes international environmental compliance?
a) Monitoring
b) Enforcement
c) Incentives
d) Capacity

05. Which trend informs future workforce reskilling strategies?
a) Industry partnerships
b) Digital training
c) Public funding
d) Lifelong learning

06. Which issue shapes climate-resilient urban services?
a) Water
b) Energy
c) Transport
d) Waste

07. Which concern shapes humanitarian coordination legitimacy?
a) Representation
b) Effectiveness
c) Transparency
d) Accountability

08. Which factor shapes global adaptation knowledge diffusion?
a) Platforms
b) Networks
c) Technical assistance
d) Learning incentives

09. Which trend informs public sector accountability innovation?
a) Digital audits
b) Open data
c) Citizen oversight
d) Performance metrics

10. Which issue shapes international cooperation durability?
a) Trust
b) Reciprocity
c) Institutions
d) Leadership

11. Which concern shapes global climate credibility?
a) Ambition
b) Delivery
c) Transparency
d) Verification

12. Which factor shapes humanitarian system resilience?
a) Financing
b) Local ownership
c) Capacity
d) Accountability

13. Which trend informs future global risk governance?
a) Anticipation
b) Coordination
c) Flexibility
d) Learning

14. Which issue shapes public confidence in international cooperation?
a) Fairness
b) Effectiveness
c) Transparency
d) Inclusion

15. Which concern shapes climate-resilient development equity?
a) Vulnerable groups
b) Regional disparities
c) Financing access
d) Participation

16. Which factor shapes digital governance effectiveness globally?
a) Institutions
b) Skills
c) Technology
d) Leadership

17. Which trend informs humanitarian reform sustainability?
a) Evidence use
b) Financing
c) Partnerships
d) Accountability

18. Which issue shapes long-term global preparedness?
a) Planning
b) Training
c) Resources
d) Coordination

19. Which concern shapes trust in public institutions worldwide?
a) Integrity
b) Performance
c) Inclusion
d) Communication

20. Which factor shapes future global stability?
a) Cooperation
b) Equity
c) Resilience
d) Governance

21. Who wrote Romeo and Juliet?
A. Charles Dickens
B. William Shakespeare
C. Jane Austen
D. Mark Twain

22. Which language has the most native speakers in the world?
A. English
B. Spanish
C. Mandarin Chinese
D. Hindi

23. The Mona Lisa was painted by whom?
A. Pablo Picasso
B. Vincent van Gogh
C. Leonardo da Vinci
D. Michelangelo

24. Which book is considered the longest novel ever written?
A. War and Peace
B. Les Misérables
C. In Search of Lost Time
D. Don Quixote

25. Who wrote Pride and Prejudice?
A. Emily Brontë
B. Charlotte Brontë
C. Jane Austen
D. George Eliot

26. Which country is famous for the traditional dance Flamenco?
A. Italy
B. Spain
C. Portugal
D. Greece

27. What is the main theme of George Orwell’s 1984?
A. Romance
B. Adventure
C. Totalitarianism
D. Fantasy

28. Which art movement is Salvador Dalí associated with?
A. Impressionism
B. Cubism
C. Surrealism
D. Realism

29. Who composed the Ninth Symphony?
A. Mozart
B. Bach
C. Beethoven
D. Chopin

30. Which musical instrument has 88 keys?
A. Organ
B. Keyboard
C. Piano
D. Harpsichord

31. Which religion is based on the teachings of Buddha?
A. Hinduism
B. Buddhism
C. Jainism
D. Confucianism

32. The Taj Mahal was built by which Mughal emperor?
A. Akbar
B. Babur
C. Jahangir
D. Shah Jahan

33. Which festival is known as the Festival of God Gifted in Worldwide?
A. Newyear
B. Eid
C. Weekend
D. Good Friday

34. Who wrote The Odyssey?
A. Plato
B. Socrates
C. Aristotle
D. Homer

35. Which country is the birthplace of opera?
A. France
B. Germany
C. Italy
D. Austria

36. What is the national flower of Japan?
A. Lotus
B. Rose
C. Cherry blossom
D. Lily

37. Which language is Don Quixote originally written in?
A. French
B. Italian
C. Spanish
D. Portuguese

38. Who painted the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel?
A. Raphael
B. Leonardo da Vinci
C. Donatello
D. Michelangelo

39. Which novel begins with “Call me Ishmael”?
A. Moby-Dick
B. The Old Man and the Sea
C. Robinson Crusoe
D. Treasure Island

40. Which country is famous for producing the most films annually?
A. USA
B. China
C. Nigeria
D. India

41. Which art style focuses on light and color?
A. Baroque
B. Impressionism
C. Gothic
D. Expressionism

42. Who wrote The Divine Comedy?
A. Virgil
B. Dante Alighieri
C. Chaucer
D. Milton

43. What is the traditional Japanese garment called?
A. Hanbok
B. Kimono
C. Cheongsam
D. Sari

44. Which author created Sherlock Holmes?
A. Agatha Christie
B. Edgar Allan Poe
C. Arthur Conan Doyle
D. Wilkie Collins

45. Which museum houses the Mona Lisa?
A. Prado Museum
B. British Museum
C. Vatican Museums
D. Louvre Museum

46. What is the main ingredient of sushi?
A. Fish
B. Rice
C. Seaweed
D. Soybean

47. Which literary genre does The Lord of the Rings belong to?
A. Science Fiction
B. Romance
C. Fantasy
D. Horror

48. Which country is known for the Carnival in Rio de Janeiro?
A. Argentina
B. Mexico
C. Brazil
D. Colombia

49. Who wrote Animal Farm?
A. Aldous Huxley
B. George Orwell
C. J. R. R. Tolkien
D. H. G. Wells

50. Which ancient language was used in the Roman Empire?
A. Greek
B. Latin
C. Hebrew
D. Aramaic

51. How many players are on a football (soccer) team on the field?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

52. The Olympic Games are held every how many years?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

53. Which country hosted the first modern Olympic Games?
A. France
B. United Kingdom
C. Greece
D. Italy

54. How many rings are there on the Olympic flag?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

55. Which sport uses a shuttlecock?
A. Tennis
B. Badminton
C. Squash
D. Table tennis

56. Which country won the FIFA World Cup in 2018?
A. Brazil
B. Germany
C. Argentina
D. France

57. How long is an official marathon race?
A. 40 km
B. 41 km
C. 42.195 km
D. 45 km

58. Which sport is associated with Wimbledon?
A. Cricket
B. Golf
C. Tennis
D. Rugby

59. In which sport would you perform a slam dunk?
A. Volleyball
B. Basketball
C. Handball
D. Netball

60. Which country is known as the birthplace of cricket?
A. Australia
B. India
C. England
D. South Africa

61. How many players are there in a baseball team?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10

62. Which sport uses the terms “strike” and “spare”?
A. Baseball
B. Bowling
C. Boxing
D. Golf

63. Which country has won the most Olympic gold medals overall?
A. China
B. Russia
C. United Kingdom
D. United States

64. Which sport is Michael Jordan famous for?
A. Baseball
B. Football
C. Basketball
D. Boxing

65. How many holes are played in a standard golf course?
A. 9
B. 12
C. 15
D. 18

66. Which country hosted the 2016 Summer Olympics?
A. China
B. Brazil
C. Japan
D. UK

67. What is the national sport of Japan?
A. Karate
B. Judo
C. Sumo wrestling
D. Kendo

68. In which sport is the Davis Cup awarded?
A. Football
B. Tennis
C. Cricket
D. Hockey

69. Which game uses a cue and balls on a table?
A. Snooker
B. Chess
C. Darts
D. Bowling

70. How many players are on a volleyball team on the court?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

71. Which sport includes the terms “checkmate” and “stalemate”?
A. Draughts
B. Chess
C. Go
D. Ludo

72. Which country is famous for producing Formula 1 driver Lewis Hamilton?
A. USA
B. Germany
C. United Kingdom
D. Australia

73. Which sport uses a puck?
A. Field hockey
B. Ice hockey
C. Lacrosse
D. Polo

74. How many minutes are played in a standard football match?
A. 80
B. 85
C. 90
D. 100

75. Which sport does Serena Williams play?
A. Basketball
B. Athletics
C. Tennis
D. Swimming

76. What is the highest possible break in snooker?
A. 140
B. 145
C. 147
D. 150

77. Which country invented table tennis?
A. China
B. Japan
C. England
D. South Korea

78. In which sport is the term “home run” used?
A. Cricket
B. Baseball
C. Rugby
D. Hockey

79. Which sport uses a net, a shuttlecock, and a racket?
A. Tennis
B. Squash
C. Badminton
D. Volleyball

80. Which country hosted the 2020 Summer Olympics (held in 2021)?
A. China
B. Japan
C. South Korea
D. Australia

81. What color jersey does the winner of the Tour de France wear?
A. Green
B. White
C. Yellow
D. Red

82. Which sport includes freestyle, backstroke, and butterfly?
A. Rowing
B. Diving
C. Swimming
D. Surfing

83. How many players are on a rugby union team?
A. 11
B. 13
C. 15
D. 17

84. Which sport uses the term “love” for zero score?
A. Badminton
B. Tennis
C. Squash
D. Volleyball

85. Which game is played on an 8×8 board?
A. Ludo
B. Chess
C. Checkers
D. Both B and C

86. Which country is famous for long-distance runners?
A. Kenya
B. Brazil
C. USA
D. China

87. Which sport is played at the Super Bowl?
A. Baseball
B. Basketball
C. Ice hockey
D. American football

88. How many players are on a hockey team on the field (field hockey)?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

89. Which martial art originated in Brazil?
A. Karate
B. Taekwondo
C. Judo
D. Capoeira

90. Which sport uses clubs and a small ball played on grass?
A. Polo
B. Cricket
C. Golf
D. Hockey

91. AI challenges traditional ideas of intelligence by: 
A. Automating reasoning
B. Mimicking cognition
C. Redefining intelligence
D. All of the above

92. Philosophical debates about AI focus on: 
A. Consciousness
B. Agency
C. Moral responsibility
D. All of the above

93. AI does not currently possess: 
A. Consciousness
B. Emotions
C. Moral awareness
D. All of the above

94. Human uniqueness debates arise because AI can: 
A. Write
B. Create art
C. Solve problems
D. All of the above

95. Questions about AI rights are based on: 
A. Sentience
B. Moral status
C. Future possibilities
D. All of the above

96. Human–AI interaction affects identity by: 
A. Shaping behavior
B. Influencing decisions
C. Altering self-perception
D. All of the above

97. AI prompts reflection on what it means to: 
A. Think
B. Create
C. Be human
D. All of the above

98. Ethical responsibility for AI actions lies with: 
A. Developers
B. Deployers
C. Human decision-makers
D. All of the above

99. AI raises moral questions about: 
A. Autonomy
B. Control
C. Accountability
D. All of the above

100. Philosophers debate whether AI can ever: A. Understand meaning
B. Have intentions
C. Be conscious
D. All of the above

101. AI systems simulate understanding through: 
A. Pattern recognition
B. Statistical learning
C. Data correlation
D. All of the above

102. Human trust in AI depends on: 
A. Reliability
B. Explainability
C. Alignment with values
D. All of the above

103. AI forces societies to reconsider: 
A. Work
B. Creativity
C. Knowledge
D. All of the above

104. Moral decision-making in AI is limited because: 
A. Values are contextual
B. Ethics are complex
C. Data is incomplete
D. All of the above

105. AI ethics ultimately reflects: 
A. Human priorities
B. Cultural norms
C. Power structures
D. All of the above

106. Debates about superintelligence focus on: 
A. Control
B. Alignment
C. Existential risk
D. All of the above

107. Human-centered AI philosophy emphasizes: 
A. Dignity
B. Agency
C. Well-being
D. All of the above

108. AI prompts questions about responsibility when: 
A. Decisions are automated
B. Outcomes are harmful
C. Oversight is unclear
D. All of the above

109. Philosophical caution about AI stems from: 
A. Uncertainty
B. Power imbalance
C. Long-term impact
D. All of the above

110. The most enduring AI question may be: 
A. What it can do
B. How it is used
C. Who decides
D. All of the above

111. Long-term AI scenarios range from: 
A. Beneficial collaboration
B. Social disruption
C. Existential risk
D. All of the above

112. AI alignment research seeks to: 
A. Ensure safety
B. Match human values
C. Prevent harm
D. All of the above

113. The pace of AI development affects: 
A. Governance readiness
B. Social adaptation
C. Risk management
D. All of the above

114. Future societies with AI may experience: 
A. Increased productivity
B. Economic restructuring
C. Cultural change
D. All of the above

115. Long-term AI governance requires: 
A. Global cooperation
B. Adaptive regulation
C. Ethical frameworks
D. All of the above

116. AI could help solve global challenges like: 
A. Climate change
B. Disease
C. Poverty
D. All of the above

117. The risk of unchecked AI growth involves: 
A. Loss of control
B. Concentration of power
C. Systemic harm
D. All of the above

118. Human decision-making remains essential because: 
A. Values are human
B. Context matters
C. Responsibility cannot be automated
D. All of the above

119. The future relationship between humans and AI is likely to be: 
A. Collaborative
B. Regulated
C. Evolving
D. All of the above

120. The key determinant of AI’s future impact is: 
A. Technology itself
B. Human governance
C. Ethical choices
D. All of the above

121. AI progress forces societies to plan for: 
A. Workforce transition
B. Social safety nets
C. Education reform
D. All of the above

122. Long-term AI safety discussions emphasize: 
A. Prevention
B. Preparedness
C. Global norms
D. All of the above

123. AI’s role in civilization depends on: 
A. Inclusivity
B. Responsibility
C. Shared benefit
D. All of the above

124. Human values must remain central to AI to ensure: 
A. Trust
B. Fairness
C. Sustainable progress
D. All of the above

125. AI could reshape global cooperation by: 
A. Enabling shared problem-solving
B. Increasing competition
C. Changing power dynamics
D. All of the above

126. The most optimistic AI future envisions: 
A. Human flourishing
B. Reduced inequality
C. Responsible innovation
D. All of the above

127. The most pessimistic AI future warns of: 
A. Misuse
B. Concentration of power
C. Loss of agency
D. All of the above

128. Preparing for AI’s future requires: 
A. Foresight
B. Ethical debate
C. Collective action
D. All of the above

129. AI’s long-term legacy will be judged by: 
A. Human well-being
B. Social justice
C. Sustainability
D. All of the above

130. The defining question for the AI era is: 
A. Can we build it
B. Should we use it
C. How should we govern it
D. All of the above

131. AI learning tools should prioritize: 
A. Equity
B. Inclusion
C. Accessibility
D. All of the above

132. Over-reliance on AI in learning may reduce: 
A. Critical thinking
B. Creativity
C. Independent problem-solving
D. All of the above

133. AI can support special education by: 
A. Personalization
B. Assistive technologies
C. Adaptive pacing
D. All of the above

134. Future classrooms are likely to be: 
A. Hybrid
B. Technology-enhanced
C. Human-led
D. All of the above

135. The ultimate goal of AI in education is to: 
A. Replace teachers
B. Improve outcomes
C. Support human learning
D. All of the above

136. The primary purpose of separation of powers is to:
A. Increase government efficiency
B. Prevent concentration of power
C. Strengthen executive authority
D. Reduce public participation

137. Which principle ensures that government actions are bound by law?
A. Federalism
B. Sovereignty
C. Rule of Law
D. Judicial activism

138. Accountability in public administration primarily means:
A. Obedience to superiors
B. Transparency and answerability
C. Political neutrality
D. Administrative secrecy

139. A written constitution differs from an unwritten one mainly because it is:
A. Easier to amend
B. Fully codified in a single document
C. Based on conventions only
D. Judicially unenforceable

140. Which institution typically audits government expenditure?
A. Legislature
B. Judiciary
C. Supreme Audit Institution
D. Cabinet Secretariat

141. The United Nations Security Council has how many permanent members?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

142. Diplomacy conducted through international organizations is known as:
A. Bilateral diplomacy
B. Track-II diplomacy
C. Multilateral diplomacy
D. Shuttle diplomacy

143. The principle of non-intervention primarily protects:
A. Economic sovereignty
B. Cultural identity
C. Territorial integrity
D. State sovereignty

144. Which document governs international treaties?
A. Geneva Convention
B. Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties
C. Hague Convention
D. UN Charter

145. Soft power refers to a country’s ability to:
A. Use military force
B. Influence through attraction
C. Impose economic sanctions
D. Control global markets

146. Inflation is best defined as:
A. Increase in money supply only
B. Continuous rise in general price level
C. Decline in purchasing power of exports
D. Increase in government spending

147. GDP measures:
A. National wealth
B. Income distribution
C. Total value of goods and services produced
D. Standard of living

148. Which policy tool is primarily used by central banks?
A. Fiscal deficit
B. Taxation
C. Monetary policy
D. Trade policy

149. Sustainable development emphasizes:
A. Maximum industrial output
B. Short-term economic growth
C. Environmental protection only
D. Development without compromising future needs

150. A budget deficit occurs when:
A. Exports exceed imports
B. Government spending exceeds revenue
C. Tax rates are increased
D. Inflation declines

151. Judicial review allows courts to:
A. Create laws
B. Amend the constitution
C. Interpret and invalidate laws
D. Control elections

152. Fundamental rights are generally considered:
A. Absolute
B. Optional
C. Enforceable by courts
D. Advisory

153. Natural justice emphasizes:
A. Speedy trials
B. Legal formalism
C. Fair hearing and impartiality
D. Written procedures

154. Habeas Corpus is primarily concerned with:
A. Property disputes
B. Freedom of speech
C. Protection from unlawful detention
D. Right to privacy

155. The independence of judiciary is essential to:
A. Strengthen executive power
B. Ensure fair adjudication
C. Limit democratic participation
D. Promote legislative supremacy

156. National security includes all EXCEPT:
A. Military security
B. Economic security
C. Environmental security
D. Corporate profitability

157. Deterrence theory is based on:
A. Moral persuasion
B. Preventing action through fear of retaliation
C. Diplomatic negotiations
D. Arms reduction

158. Cyber security primarily addresses threats to:
A. Borders
B. Physical infrastructure
C. Digital systems and data
D. Airspace

159. Intelligence agencies mainly function to:
A. Enforce laws
B. Provide secret information for decision-making
C. Conduct diplomacy
D. Regulate the economy

160. Non-state actors in security studies include:
A. Nation-states only
B. International courts
C. Terrorist organizations
D. Central banks

161. Integrity in public service means:
A. Strict obedience
B. Political loyalty
C. Consistency of actions with moral values
D. Efficiency alone

162. Conflict of interest arises when:
A. Laws are unclear
B. Personal interest interferes with official duty
C. Policies change frequently
D. Authority is delegated

163. Ethical leadership primarily promotes:
A. Fear and discipline
B. Compliance through force
C. Trust and credibility
D. Personal authority

164. Transparency in governance helps to reduce:
A. Efficiency
B. Accountability
C. Corruption
D. Participation

165. Whistleblowing refers to:
A. Media activism
B. Disclosure of wrongdoing
C. Political criticism
D. Policy opposition

166. Artificial Intelligence is best described as:
A. Human intelligence replacement
B. Machine ability to simulate intelligence
C. Computer programming only
D. Data storage technology

167. Climate change is primarily caused by:
A. Natural cycles only
B. Volcanic activity
C. Greenhouse gas emissions
D. Solar radiation changes

168. Renewable energy sources include:
A. Coal
B. Natural gas
C. Solar
D. Nuclear

169. Biotechnology is widely used in:
A. Weapons development
B. Agriculture and medicine
C. Transport systems
D. Construction engineering

170. Data privacy concerns relate mainly to:
A. National borders
B. Personal information protection
C. Military secrecy
D. Corporate profits

171. Globalization primarily refers to:
A. Political domination
B. Cultural uniformity
C. Increasing global interdependence
D. Military alliances

172. The World Trade Organization mainly regulates:
A. Financial markets
B. Health standards
C. International trade rules
D. Labor laws

173. Human rights are considered:
A. State-granted privileges
B. Universal and inherent
C. Conditional on citizenship
D. Economically determined

174. Migration becomes a security issue when it:
A. Supports development
B. Is unmanaged and forced
C. Increases cultural exchange
D. Improves labor markets

175. Diplomacy during crises often relies on:
A. Public referendums
B. Back-channel negotiations
C. Trade sanctions only
D. Military declarations

176. Evidence-based policymaking relies primarily on:
A. Political ideology
B. Public opinion
C. Empirical data and research
D. Media narratives

177. Federalism is characterized by:
A. Centralized authority
B. Division of powers
C. Judicial supremacy
D. Unitary governance

178. National interest in foreign policy refers to:
A. Moral ideals only
B. Economic profit only
C. Long-term strategic goals
D. Public opinion

179. Strategic autonomy implies:
A. Isolationism
B. Dependence on allies
C. Independent decision-making
D. Military dominance

180. Policy implementation failure often occurs due to:
A. Strong leadership
B. Adequate resources
C. Poor coordination
D. Clear objectives

181. Governance legitimacy is derived mainly from:
A. Military power
B. Legal authority and public consent
C. Economic strength
D. International recognition

182. Public policy cycle begins with:
A. Evaluation
B. Implementation
C. Agenda setting
D. Budget allocation

183. National resilience refers to a state’s ability to:
A. Expand territory
B. Withstand and recover from shocks
C. Control markets
D. Enforce ideology

184. Strategic communication is used to:
A. Spread propaganda
B. Influence perceptions ethically
C. Control media
D. Limit information

185. Rule-based international order emphasizes:
A. Power politics
B. Military alliances
C. Agreed norms and institutions
D. Economic sanctions

186. Civil-military relations aim to ensure:
A. Military dominance
B. Political neutrality of armed forces
C. Military governance
D. Strategic autonomy

187. Administrative discretion should be guided by:
A. Personal judgment only
B. Political pressure
C. Law and public interest
D. Speed of action

188. Global commons include:
A. National parks
B. Oceans and outer space
C. Border areas
D. Exclusive economic zones

189. Crisis management requires:
A. Delay in decision-making
B. Centralized secrecy
C. Timely, coordinated response
D. Media control

190. Sustainable governance balances:
A. Growth and control
B. Authority and power
C. Economy, society, and environment
D. Security and secrecy

191. Strategic foresight helps governments to:
A. Predict elections
B. Control citizens
C. Anticipate future challenges
D. Avoid accountability

192. Public trust in institutions depends largely on:
A. Size of government
B. Transparency and performance
C. Media narratives
D. International rankings

193. Inclusive governance ensures:
A. Elite decision-making
B. Participation of diverse groups
C. Faster administration
D. Centralization

194. National interest and global responsibility often require:
A. Zero compromise
B. Policy alignment and balance
C. Military enforcement
D. Economic isolation

195. Strategic leadership at senior levels requires:
A. Authority only
B. Technical knowledge only
C. Vision, ethics, and decision-making
D. Political loyalty

196. Policy coherence means:
A. Policy rigidity
B. Alignment across sectors
C. Frequent policy change
D. Central control

197. Democratic governance is strengthened by:
A. Centralized authority
B. Independent institutions
C. Military oversight
D. Executive dominance

198. International law is primarily enforced through:
A. Military force
B. Global police
C. State consent and compliance
D. Economic sanctions only

199. Ethical governance enhances:
A. Administrative delays
B. Public confidence
C. Political polarization
D. Bureaucratic control

200. The ultimate objective of public service is to:
A. Maintain authority
B. Ensure political stability
C. Serve the public interest
D. Protect institutions

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